National 1 of 100 · Property Management · ID national-a-73
Which duty is most commonly associated with a tenant?
- A. Deliver legal title to the landlord
- B. Issue an eviction judgment
- C. Appraise the building
- D. Pay rent and avoid waste or damage
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Pay rent and avoid waste or damage
"Deliver legal title to the landlord" confuses a tenant's possession with the landlord's ownership. "Issue an eviction judgment" is a judicial function rather than a tenant duty. "Appraise the building" is not the ordinary lease obligation described. "Pay rent and avoid waste or damage" states ordinary rent and reasonable-care obligations under a lease. Change the facts: A lease term granting a purchase option adds an election; it does not itself convey fee title or remove rent obligations.
What to remember: A lease gives possession with obligations; it does not transfer the landlord’s fee ownership.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VIII
National 2 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-01
A buyer receives the land, its permanent building and the associated ownership rights. Which term includes that complete interest?
- A. Land alone, excluding improvements
- B. Personal property only
- C. The building materials before attachment
- D. Real property
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Real property
"Land alone, excluding improvements" omits the permanent building and associated interests. "Personal property only" does not describe ownership of the land and building. "The building materials before attachment" describes movable materials before they become attached. "Real property" covers the land, permanent improvements and associated property interests. Change the facts: If the sale covers only uninstalled building supplies, those supplies are personal property.
What to remember: Separate the physical asset from the ownership rights attached to it.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, real property.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 3 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-04
What process converts attached real-property material into personal property?
- A. Annexation
- B. Severance
- C. Accession
- D. Escheat
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Severance
"Annexation" describes attachment rather than detachment. "Severance" describes separation from the real property. "Accession" concerns acquiring additions to property. "Escheat" concerns property passing to the state under applicable conditions. Change the facts: Attaching the movable item to become part of the property reverses the process to annexation.
What to remember: A written inclusion or exclusion can prevent a dispute over an attached item.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, fixture.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 4 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-24
Which loan is conventional but not conforming because its amount exceeds the applicable Enterprise limit?
- A. VA-guaranteed loan
- B. FHA-insured loan
- C. Jumbo loan
- D. USDA-guaranteed loan
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Jumbo loan
"VA-guaranteed loan" is government guaranteed rather than the described conventional loan. "FHA-insured loan" is government insured rather than conventional. "Jumbo loan" matches a conventional loan exceeding the applicable conforming limit. "USDA-guaranteed loan" is a separate government-backed program. Change the facts: A loan within the size limit can still be nonconforming for other reasons; size alone does not prove conformity.
What to remember: Jumbo describes size above the applicable conforming limit. Do not assume a permanent nationwide dollar threshold.
Check the rule: CFPB, Conventional loans: conforming and nonconforming loans.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 5 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-70
An inspector recommends an electrical specialist after identifying unsafe wiring. What is the most useful response before the buyer’s contingency deadline?
- A. Arrange qualified follow-up and review the contract deadlines
- B. Assume the appraisal already covered the wiring
- C. Wait until after closing to ask for repairs
- D. Promise the repair will cost less than $100
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Arrange qualified follow-up and review the contract deadlines
"Arrange qualified follow-up and review the contract deadlines" obtains usable evidence while preserving the chance to exercise contractual rights. "Assume the appraisal already covered the wiring" confuses appraisal with specialist electrical investigation. "Wait until after closing to ask for repairs" may lose a contract-specific election through delay. "Promise the repair will cost less than $100" invents a repair price without evidence. Change the facts: If the deadline has already passed without a valid extension, later evaluation alone does not restore the original contractual timing right.
What to remember: Obtain usable information while the buyer still has time to exercise contractual rights.
Check the rule: CFPB, Schedule a home inspection.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 6 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-61
A seller instructs an agent to tell buyers that a roof is new, although the agent knows it is 20 years old. What should the agent do?
- A. Repeat it if the seller signs a waiver
- B. Obey because loyalty overrides honesty
- C. Refuse to make the false statement
- D. State it only in private messages
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Refuse to make the false statement
"Repeat it if the seller signs a waiver" does not permit a knowingly false statement to a buyer. "Obey because loyalty overrides honesty" does not turn loyalty into permission to deceive. "Refuse to make the false statement" avoids knowingly repeating the false roof claim. "State it only in private messages" does not make deception lawful merely by changing the communication channel. Change the facts: If reliable evidence establishes that the roof really is new, the knowingly-false-fact premise changes; accurate supporting facts still matter.
What to remember: Loyalty is not permission to make a knowingly false statement.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 7 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-62
After a listing expires, a former agent wants to publish the seller’s previously confidential minimum price. There is no consent or legal disclosure duty. What is appropriate?
- A. Keep the information confidential
- B. Publish because the listing expired
- C. Share it only with the highest bidder
- D. Trade it for a referral
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Keep the information confidential
"Keep the information confidential" preserves the confidence where no permission or legal disclosure duty exists. "Publish because the listing expired" mistakes expiration for permission to disclose. "Share it only with the highest bidder" still makes an unauthorized disclosure. "Trade it for a referral" uses a former client's confidence for an unauthorized purpose. Change the facts: Actual client consent or a governing legal disclosure requirement would change the analysis to the extent it applies.
What to remember: Expiration does not turn the former client’s confidential information into marketing material.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 8 of 100 · Transfer of Title · ID national-a-80
A trustee signs a deed. What should the title review verify first?
- A. The trustee's preferred price
- B. The property's paint color
- C. The broker's commission split
- D. The trust's ownership and the trustee's authority
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The trust's ownership and the trustee's authority
"The trustee's preferred price" does not establish authority to convey the trust's property. "The property's paint color" is not evidence of the signer's legal authority. "The broker's commission split" does not prove trust ownership or authority. "The trust's ownership and the trustee's authority" addresses both the trust's interest and the signer's power to convey. Change the facts: A person who is not an authorized trustee cannot rely on the trustee job label alone to establish authority.
What to remember: An individual’s job title does not replace evidence of authority to sign for a trust.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IX
National 9 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-30
For a covered closed-end mortgage, after receiving the six application items specified by Regulation Z, when must the lender generally deliver or mail the Loan Estimate? Assume the application is not denied or withdrawn during that initial period and no special exception applies.
- A. The creditor may delay indefinitely for a purchase contract
- B. The creditor must deliver or mail the Loan Estimate no later than the third business day after receipt
- C. The Closing Disclosure is due the same hour
- D. HMDA requires immediate approval
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The creditor must deliver or mail the Loan Estimate no later than the third business day after receipt
"The creditor may delay indefinitely for a purchase contract" cannot be justified merely by waiting for that additional document after the defined application exists. "The creditor must deliver or mail the Loan Estimate no later than the third business day after receipt" states the ordinary initial Loan Estimate delivery-or-mailing deadline. "The Closing Disclosure is due the same hour" confuses initial estimates with final covered disclosures. "HMDA requires immediate approval" does not turn a data-reporting law into approval authority. Change the facts: If the application is withdrawn or denied within the relevant period, the regulatory disclosure exception must be considered.
What to remember: Delivery of a Loan Estimate is not underwriting approval or a rate-lock promise.
Check the rule: CFPB, Regulation Z § 1026.19(e) and (f): mortgage disclosures.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 10 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-28
A mortgage covering five separate apartment parcels is best described by which collateral label?
- A. Package mortgage
- B. Open-end lease
- C. Reverse mortgage
- D. Blanket mortgage
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Blanket mortgage
"Package mortgage" generally combines real and personal property collateral, not merely several parcels. "Open-end lease" does not describe this secured loan. "Reverse mortgage" is not established by multiple parcels alone. "Blanket mortgage" covers more than one parcel as collateral. Change the facts: A loan secured by one parcel plus business personal property raises the package-collateral distinction instead.
What to remember: A blanket mortgage covers multiple parcels. Check release provisions when one parcel is sold.
Check the rule: California DRE, Real Estate Finance: notes and security instruments.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 11 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-71
Before a buyer is obligated to purchase most housing built before 1978, what must the seller generally provide under the federal lead rule?
- A. Only a verbal statement that the paint looks sound
- B. A mandatory full abatement certificate for every home
- C. A guarantee that no lead exists
- D. The approved pamphlet, known information, available reports, and required warning and acknowledgment language
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The approved pamphlet, known information, available reports, and required warning and acknowledgment language
"Only a verbal statement that the paint looks sound" does not supply the required written information and materials. "A mandatory full abatement certificate for every home" adds universal removal requirements the disclosure rule does not impose. "A guarantee that no lead exists" is a guarantee the rule does not require. "The approved pamphlet, known information, available reports, and required warning and acknowledgment language" identifies the principal information and document duties before the buyer is obligated. The separate buyer lead-evaluation opportunity is generally 10 days, unless the period is changed by mutual written agreement or waived in writing. Change the facts: A transaction outside target-housing coverage requires examining the actual exclusion rather than automatically applying every sale requirement.
What to remember: Federal lead disclosure generally concerns covered pre-1978 housing, not every property without exception.
Check the rule: EPA, Real Estate Disclosures about Potential Lead Hazards.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 12 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-89
Competing firms divide sellers by ZIP code. What is this?
- A. Amortization
- B. Severalty
- C. Substitution
- D. Market allocation
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Market allocation
"Amortization" is repayment accounting rather than division of customers. "Severalty" describes sole ownership rather than anticompetitive coordination. "Substitution" is a valuation principle rather than the competitor arrangement. "Market allocation" describes an agreement to divide territory or customers. Change the facts: A firm choosing a service area independently, without competitor agreement, does not establish this allocation violation by that choice alone.
What to remember: An agreement to divide customers removes competition even without an agreed price.
Check the rule: U.S. Department of Justice, Price Fixing, Bid Rigging, and Market Allocation.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 13 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-25
Who commonly makes the loan in an FHA-insured home purchase?
- A. The listing broker
- B. The county recorder
- C. An FHA-approved private lender
- D. The property-tax assessor
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. An FHA-approved private lender
"The listing broker" does not become the mortgage lender by listing the property. "The county recorder" records instruments rather than making the purchase loan. "An FHA-approved private lender" advances the funds while FHA supplies qualifying insurance. "The property-tax assessor" performs assessment rather than mortgage lending. Change the facts: An uninsured conventional loan lacks FHA insurance even when a private lender makes it.
What to remember: FHA generally insures eligible loans; approved lenders make them.
Check the rule: CFPB, FHA loans: private lenders and federal insurance.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 14 of 100 · Transfer of Title · ID national-a-81
Which document offers to issue title insurance subject to its stated requirements and exceptions?
- A. Deed
- B. Survey
- C. Title commitment
- D. Promissory note
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Title commitment
"Deed" is the conveyance rather than the conditional insurance undertaking. "Survey" maps property within its scope rather than promising insurance. "Title commitment" is the conditional insurance offer, with the stated requirements and exceptions. It is not the issued policy. "Promissory note" evidences debt rather than promising title coverage. Change the facts: Failure to satisfy a commitment requirement can prevent the promised policy from issuing on the requested terms.
What to remember: A commitment is conditional. It is not the issued policy or a guarantee of building condition.
Check the rule: ALTA 2021 Commitment for Title Insurance, notice and commitment to issue policy.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IX
National 15 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-47
What best distinguishes a lease-option from a lease-purchase obligation?
- A. The option eliminates rent
- B. The option transfers title immediately
- C. The option gives a purchase right rather than a purchase duty
- D. The option requires no definite terms
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The option gives a purchase right rather than a purchase duty
"The option eliminates rent" does not follow; the lease can still require rent. "The option transfers title immediately" confuses a purchase election with a present conveyance. "The option gives a purchase right rather than a purchase duty" distinguishes the optionee's election from a purchase obligation. "The option requires no definite terms" does not follow; enforceability still requires sufficiently definite terms and other essentials. Change the facts: A binding promise to buy under a lease-purchase arrangement differs from an unexercised purchase option.
What to remember: A lease grants possession; an option adds a right to buy on specified terms.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 16 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-58
A seller instructs a listing agent to conceal a known latent material defect. Which duty controls?
- A. Obey because every client instruction is binding
- B. Transfer the defect to the customer
- C. Conceal because loyalty eliminates disclosure duties
- D. Refuse because obedience is limited to lawful instructions
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Refuse because obedience is limited to lawful instructions
"Obey because every client instruction is binding" ignores the limit to lawful instructions. "Transfer the defect to the customer" does not make a disclosure duty disappear. "Conceal because loyalty eliminates disclosure duties" does not override a governing disclosure requirement. "Refuse because obedience is limited to lawful instructions" recognizes that obedience cannot require unlawful concealment. Change the facts: If the information is protected negotiating strategy with no required disclosure, confidentiality presents a different issue.
What to remember: Obedience applies to lawful instructions. A client cannot require discriminatory or dishonest conduct.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 17 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-45
A tenant transfers all 18 months remaining on a lease. What is the transfer?
- A. Sublease
- B. Novation automatically
- C. License
- D. Assignment
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Assignment
"Sublease" normally leaves some reversionary leasehold with the original tenant. "Novation automatically" would require the additional agreed substitution and release. "License" does not transfer the entire leasehold estate. "Assignment" transfers the whole remaining 18-month term. Change the facts: If the tenant retains the last month of the term, the retained reversion supports a sublease classification instead.
What to remember: Assignment transfers the remaining leasehold interest; a sublease retains a reversionary interest.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 18 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-17
Which cost estimates a modern building with utility equivalent to the subject?
- A. Reproduction cost
- B. Historical cost only
- C. Replacement cost
- D. Assessed cost
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Replacement cost
"Reproduction cost" seeks a duplicate rather than equivalent utility using current design. "Historical cost only" reports past spending rather than current equivalent utility. "Replacement cost" uses current materials and design to provide equivalent utility. "Assessed cost" is not the requested construction-cost definition. Change the facts: An exact replica using the same design and materials calls for reproduction cost instead.
What to remember: Replacement uses current materials and utility; reproduction seeks a duplicate.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 19 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-65
A brokerage refers a buyer to a title company in which it owns an interest. For a covered affiliated business arrangement under RESPA, which step is required?
- A. Require the buyer to use the affiliate in every case
- B. Treat the ownership interest as confidential
- C. Give the prescribed written ownership and estimated-charge disclosure at or before referral
- D. Accept a separate payment solely for the referral
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Give the prescribed written ownership and estimated-charge disclosure at or before referral
"Require the buyer to use the affiliate in every case" ignores the required-use limits of the exception. "Treat the ownership interest as confidential" hides the financial connection the disclosure is meant to reveal. "Give the prescribed written ownership and estimated-charge disclosure at or before referral" states the prescribed disclosure for this brokerage referral. "Accept a separate payment solely for the referral" is not legalized merely because an affiliate relationship exists. Change the facts: Even after disclosure, an impermissible required-use condition or referral payment can prevent the arrangement from qualifying.
What to remember: Affiliation disclosure is one condition of an exception, not blanket permission for referral payments.
Check the rule: CFPB, Regulation X § 1024.15: affiliated business arrangements.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 20 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-98
Which statement correctly distinguishes a discount point from an origination fee?
- A. A point is based on sale price while an origination fee is based on appraised value
- B. A discount point is tied to rate pricing while an origination fee pays for making the loan
- C. An origination fee always reduces the interest rate by 1%
- D. The two terms must always describe the same charge
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A discount point is tied to rate pricing while an origination fee pays for making the loan
"A point is based on sale price while an origination fee is based on appraised value" uses the wrong universal bases for the two charges. "A discount point is tied to rate pricing while an origination fee pays for making the loan" separates rate pricing from compensation for originating the loan. "An origination fee always reduces the interest rate by 1%" promises an interest-rate reduction the fee does not guarantee. "The two terms must always describe the same charge" ignores that the charges can have different purposes. Change the facts: If the origination fee is a stated flat dollar amount, use that amount; do not force every origination charge into a percentage formula.
What to remember: Discount points buy a rate reduction; an origination charge compensates loan-making services.
Check the rule: CFPB, Loan Estimate explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 21 of 100 · Land Use Controls · ID national-a-12
A use is listed in the ordinance but requires findings and a public hearing. What is it most likely?
- A. Special use
- B. Illegal use
- C. Tax assessment
- D. Eminent domain
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Special use
"Special use" fits a use contemplated by the ordinance but subject to discretionary approval. "Illegal use" does not follow merely because a hearing is required. "Tax assessment" does not authorize the proposed use. "Eminent domain" concerns government acquisition rather than permission to operate. Change the facts: If the use is allowed outright without that discretionary process, it is not a special-use approval on these facts.
What to remember: A permitted conditional use differs from a variance from a dimensional requirement.
Check the rule: California DRE, Planning and Zoning: general land-use concepts.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline II
National 22 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-48
A buyer receives an inspection report during a valid inspection period. What should happen next?
- A. The seller must repair every item
- B. The broker decides which defects matter
- C. The parties follow the contract's objection, response, and election process
- D. The contract ends without notice
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The parties follow the contract's objection, response, and election process
"The seller must repair every item" does not follow automatically from an inspection report. "The broker decides which defects matter" gives the broker authority the facts do not provide. "The parties follow the contract's objection, response, and election process" uses the agreement's procedures to determine the available election. "The contract ends without notice" ignores any required notice and other conditions. Change the facts: If the contingency expressly requires timely written termination, the report alone does not exercise that election.
What to remember: Read the contingency. A defect alone does not establish a universal cancellation procedure.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 23 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-02
A seller says a built-in item was never meant to stay, but never communicated that intention. Which evidence is least useful in deciding fixture status?
- A. How the item is attached
- B. How the item is adapted to the property
- C. The seller's undisclosed private thought
- D. The intention shown by the agreement and circumstances
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The seller's undisclosed private thought
"How the item is attached" is objective evidence of attachment. "How the item is adapted to the property" is objective evidence of adaptation. "The seller's undisclosed private thought" was never communicated and supplies no outward evidence of the parties' understanding. "The intention shown by the agreement and circumstances" is directly relevant objective evidence. Change the facts: An express written exclusion supplies evidence the private thought did not provide; its wording still matters.
What to remember: Fixture intent is judged from outward evidence, not a thought never communicated.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, fixture.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 24 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-92
A buyer asks whether a proposed home business is legally permitted. What is the best broker response?
- A. Guarantee it because the property is residential
- B. Tell the buyer zoning never changes
- C. Rely only on the listing remarks
- D. Identify the proposed use and obtain current municipal and legal guidance
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Identify the proposed use and obtain current municipal and legal guidance
"Guarantee it because the property is residential" assumes that residential zoning permits every business. "Tell the buyer zoning never changes" makes an unsupported promise about future regulation. "Rely only on the listing remarks" does not verify the governing public or private controls. "Identify the proposed use and obtain current municipal and legal guidance" checks the actual proposed use against current authoritative restrictions. Change the facts: Even if zoning permits the use, an enforceable private restriction must still be checked separately.
What to remember: Verify legal use and restrictions before promising that a home business is permitted.
Check the rule: California DRE, Planning and Zoning: general land-use concepts.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 25 of 100 · Land Use Controls · ID national-a-13
A workshop began lawfully before new zoning prohibited workshops in that district. An otherwise identical neighbor started the same use after the prohibition. Which fact supports a legal nonconforming-use claim for the first property?
- A. It has higher profits
- B. It was lawful before the zoning change
- C. The owner dislikes the new ordinance
- D. It has no mortgage
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It was lawful before the zoning change
"It has higher profits" does not establish that the use began lawfully. "It was lawful before the zoning change" provides the relevant distinction from the later unlawful use. "The owner dislikes the new ordinance" is not a basis for legal nonconforming status. "It has no mortgage" does not establish the use's legal history. Change the facts: If the workshop was unlawful when established, age alone does not give it lawful nonconforming status.
What to remember: Verify that the use was lawful when established. An unlawful use does not become protected by age alone.
Check the rule: California DRE, Planning and Zoning: general land-use concepts.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline II
National 26 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-46
Which lease commonly uses base rent plus a share of retail sales?
- A. Gross lease
- B. Ground lease
- C. Percentage lease
- D. Proprietary lease
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Percentage lease
"Gross lease" typically states a rent allocation different from a sales-percentage clause. "Ground lease" principally identifies the leased land rather than this sales formula. "Percentage lease" uses base rent plus an agreed share of sales under the clause. "Proprietary lease" relates to cooperative occupancy rather than retail sales rent. Change the facts: If rent is fixed without any sales component, this fact no longer establishes a percentage lease.
What to remember: Percentage rent depends on the sales formula in the lease, often in addition to base rent.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 27 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-22
Which item is excluded from property NOI?
- A. Property tax
- B. Mortgage debt service
- C. Management expense
- D. Routine maintenance
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Mortgage debt service
"Property tax" is a property operating expense in this model. "Mortgage debt service" is financing expense and is deducted below property NOI. "Management expense" is an expense of operating the property. "Routine maintenance" is also an operating expense rather than debt service. Change the facts: If an item is routine repair expense instead of a mortgage payment, it belongs in the operating-expense calculation.
What to remember: Debt service is a financing expense. NOI is calculated before it.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 28 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-29
For a federally related mortgage transaction, a title company promises a broker a gift card for each closing referred. No actual service is supplied for that payment. Which federal restriction is most direct?
- A. Mortgage-originator licensing alone
- B. Mortgage-data reporting alone
- C. RESPA's referral-kickback prohibition
- D. Only an agreement between competing firms on price
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. RESPA's referral-kickback prohibition
"Mortgage-originator licensing alone" addresses mortgage-originator licensing rather than the referral payment. "Mortgage-data reporting alone" addresses mortgage data rather than settlement kickbacks. "RESPA's referral-kickback prohibition" addresses the thing of value exchanged for a covered referral. "Only an agreement between competing firms on price" does not capture the stated settlement-referral arrangement by itself. Change the facts: Reasonable payment for actual permitted services needs a different analysis; labelling a referral gift as a service does not supply one.
What to remember: A payment for a referral differs from reasonable compensation for actual services permitted by the rule.
Check the rule: CFPB, Regulation X § 1024.14: referral fees and kickbacks.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 29 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-43
A signed contract requires written notice to the seller by 5 p.m. Friday to exercise an inspection termination right. What should the buyer’s agent check first?
- A. The notice method, recipient, and deadline in that contract
- B. Only the inspector’s invoice
- C. Whether the listing is still online
- D. Whether the buyer verbally mentioned concerns to a friend
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The notice method, recipient, and deadline in that contract
"The notice method, recipient, and deadline in that contract" identifies the conditions needed to exercise this termination right. "Only the inspector’s invoice" does not show proper contractual notice. "Whether the listing is still online" does not determine the stipulated termination mechanics. "Whether the buyer verbally mentioned concerns to a friend" is not delivery to the required recipient. Change the facts: If notice reaches the required recipient only after the stated deadline and no exception applies, timely discovery of a defect alone does not cure it.
What to remember: A right to terminate and a properly delivered termination notice are different things.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 30 of 100 · Land Use Controls · ID national-a-11
An owner seeks relief from a side-yard requirement caused by an unusually shaped lot. What is the likely request?
- A. Rezoning
- B. Escheat
- C. Variance
- D. Subdivision dedication
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Variance
"Rezoning" would change the zoning classification rather than give limited dimensional relief. "Escheat" is unrelated to a setback hardship. "Variance" fits relief from the dimensional rule under the ordinance's criteria. "Subdivision dedication" concerns setting land aside in a subdivision. Change the facts: If the owner seeks a different zoning classification for the parcel, the request is rezoning instead.
What to remember: A variance offers relief from a zoning requirement; it does not rewrite all zoning rules.
Check the rule: California DRE, Planning and Zoning: general land-use concepts.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline II
National 31 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-59
Which service may a seller's agent most safely provide to an unrepresented buyer customer after proper disclosure?
- A. Reveal the seller's minimum price
- B. Recommend the exact offer needed to beat competitors
- C. Promise to put the buyer's interest first
- D. Provide a blank form and factual public information
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Provide a blank form and factual public information
"Reveal the seller's minimum price" discloses protected seller negotiating information without authority. "Recommend the exact offer needed to beat competitors" is negotiation advocacy rather than neutral factual assistance. "Promise to put the buyer's interest first" promises the buyer loyalty inconsistent with the stated seller representation. "Provide a blank form and factual public information" is the neutral assistance described after proper disclosure. Change the facts: A valid new buyer-representation relationship would require a different analysis; a blank form alone does not establish it.
What to remember: Providing factual assistance does not necessarily establish representation of the recipient.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 32 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-66
A buyer wants to know whether a foundation crack is structurally dangerous. What is the best next step for the agent?
- A. Recommend evaluation by a qualified structural professional
- B. Guarantee it is cosmetic after a walkthrough
- C. Treat an appraisal as a structural certification
- D. Assume fresh paint proves the wall is sound
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Recommend evaluation by a qualified structural professional
"Recommend evaluation by a qualified structural professional" gets the needed structural expertise rather than guessing. "Guarantee it is cosmetic after a walkthrough" makes a diagnosis without the stated expertise. "Treat an appraisal as a structural certification" confuses valuation with structural certification. "Assume fresh paint proves the wall is sound" does not prove the concealed condition is sound. Change the facts: A qualified structural evaluation can supply evidence the walkthrough alone did not; its actual findings must still be considered.
What to remember: Identifying a concern is different from diagnosing a structural defect.
Check the rule: CFPB, Schedule a home inspection.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 33 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-20
Land is $100,000, cost new is $500,000, and depreciation is $80,000. What is the cost indication?
- A. $420,000
- B. $480,000
- C. $680,000
- D. $520,000
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. $520,000
"$420,000" is $500,000 minus $80,000 and omits land. "$480,000" subtracts $120,000 from the $600,000 land-plus-cost sum, although depreciation is $80,000. "$680,000" adds the $80,000 loss instead of deducting it. "$520,000" is $100,000 + $500,000 - $80,000 = $520,000. Change the facts: If depreciation becomes $100,000, the indication becomes $500,000, with land and cost unchanged.
What to remember: Start with land plus improvement cost, then deduct accrued depreciation from improvements.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 34 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-52
A valid purchase agreement fixes a reasonable amount as compensation for a breach whose loss was difficult to estimate when contracting. Assume the clause meets applicable law. What is its purpose?
- A. Estimate compensatory loss in advance
- B. Impose a punishment unrelated to loss
- C. Create assent that never existed
- D. Transfer title automatically on breach
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Estimate compensatory loss in advance
"Estimate compensatory loss in advance" is the compensatory purpose under the stem's validity assumption. "Impose a punishment unrelated to loss" describes a penalty rather than the stipulated compensatory clause. "Create assent that never existed" does not create an agreement where assent was absent. "Transfer title automatically on breach" does not occur merely because a damages clause exists. Change the facts: If a provision is an unreasonable punishment rather than a lawful forecast, the validity assumption no longer holds.
What to remember: A stated damages amount is not automatically enforceable if it operates as an unlawful penalty.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 35 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-68
A buyer relies on a lender’s appraisal and plans to skip a home inspection. What should the agent explain?
- A. An appraisal and a home inspection serve different purposes
- B. The appraisal guarantees every system works
- C. An inspection replaces title research
- D. The lender checks every concealed defect
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. An appraisal and a home inspection serve different purposes
"An appraisal and a home inspection serve different purposes" recognizes the different value and condition assignments. "The appraisal guarantees every system works" overstates an appraisal's purpose. "An inspection replaces title research" confuses physical condition with title evidence. "The lender checks every concealed defect" assumes a concealed-defect guarantee the facts do not supply. Change the facts: A separate specialist inspection may still be needed when a general inspection identifies a concern outside its scope.
What to remember: Value, physical condition, and title are separate investigations.
Check the rule: CFPB, Schedule a home inspection.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 36 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-37
What fact best establishes mutual assent?
- A. One party's secret intention
- B. A later appraisal
- C. Objective words and conduct showing offer and acceptance
- D. The broker's hope that the parties agree
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Objective words and conduct showing offer and acceptance
"One party's secret intention" does not communicate assent to the other party. "A later appraisal" does not by itself form the parties' agreement. "Objective words and conduct showing offer and acceptance" supplies objective evidence of agreement to terms. "The broker's hope that the parties agree" is neither party's assent. Change the facts: If the objective response changes a material term instead of accepting it, formation requires addressing the counteroffer.
What to remember: Mutual assent concerns agreement on terms, not simply both people wanting a sale eventually.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 37 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-54
Which fact is most important when deciding whether a cooperating broker is a subagent of the seller?
- A. The broker accessed the property through the MLS
- B. The listing brokerage offered compensation
- C. The broker attended the inspection
- D. The broker accepted a subagency relationship permitted by law
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The broker accepted a subagency relationship permitted by law
"The broker accessed the property through the MLS" does not automatically create seller subagency. "The listing brokerage offered compensation" does not by itself determine representation. "The broker attended the inspection" does not establish agency merely through attendance. "The broker accepted a subagency relationship permitted by law" supplies the valid relationship required by the question. Change the facts: If the broker validly represents the buyer instead, cooperation with the listing side does not turn that broker into a seller subagent.
What to remember: Subagency requires the relevant authorization and relationship; it is not assumed from cooperation alone.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 38 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-10
An owner conveys a house to Avery for life and does not name anyone else to take afterward. Under the usual life-estate model, what future interest does the owner retain?
- A. A remainder granted to a third party
- B. A mortgage lien created by the life estate
- C. A leasehold in Avery's name
- D. Reversion
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Reversion
"Reversion" is retained by the grantor after conveying the life estate. "A mortgage lien created by the life estate" does not arise merely because a life estate was created. "A leasehold in Avery's name" does not describe the grantor's future interest. "A remainder granted to a third party" would require a third-party remainder that the stem excludes. Change the facts: Naming Morgan to take after Avery would create a remainder for Morgan rather than the grantor's retained reversion.
What to remember: A life tenant cannot convey a longer possessory estate than the life estate provides.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 39 of 100 · Land Use Controls · ID national-a-14
Which approval most directly concerns creating lots, streets, drainage, and easements?
- A. Certificate of occupancy
- B. Subdivision approval
- C. Variance
- D. Tax appeal
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Subdivision approval
"Certificate of occupancy" concerns lawful occupancy of a structure rather than creating the subdivision. "Subdivision approval" addresses division, platting and associated infrastructure. "Variance" addresses relief from a zoning restriction. "Tax appeal" addresses assessment rather than land division. Change the facts: Approval of a particular building's occupancy would involve an occupancy approval, not substitute for subdivision approval.
What to remember: Subdivision approval and the right to build a specific structure are separate questions.
Check the rule: California DRE, Planning and Zoning: general land-use concepts.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline II
National 40 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-97
How much do 1.5 points cost on a $280,000 mortgage?
- A. $1,867
- B. $2,800
- C. $4,200
- D. $42,000
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. $4,200
"$1,867" does not apply 1.5 percent to the loan. "$2,800" charges only one point. "$4,200" is $280,000 x 0.015 = $4,200. "$42,000" uses 15 percent rather than 1.5 percent. Change the facts: At two points on the same loan, the charge becomes $5,600; changing the sale price alone does not change this loan-based calculation.
What to remember: One point is 1% of the loan amount, not 1% of the purchase price.
Check the rule: CFPB, Loan Estimate explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 41 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-27
Which loan permits repeated borrowing against available home equity during a draw period?
- A. Closed-end home-equity loan
- B. Fully disbursed purchase loan
- C. Home equity line of credit
- D. Package mortgage by definition
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Home equity line of credit
"Closed-end home-equity loan" normally provides a closed-end advance rather than repeated draws. "Fully disbursed purchase loan" has already disbursed its purchase proceeds. "Home equity line of credit" permits repeated draws within the available limit and draw-period terms. "Package mortgage by definition" does not by itself mean a revolving equity credit line. Change the facts: Once the draw period ends, the borrower generally enters repayment and cannot assume new draws remain available.
What to remember: A credit line allows borrowing within its terms; it is not the same as receiving all proceeds at closing.
Check the rule: CFPB, What is a home equity line of credit?.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 42 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-83
A tenant asks for an exception to a no-pet rule for a disability-related assistance animal. What is requested?
- A. Rezoning
- B. Reasonable accommodation
- C. Eminent domain
- D. Partition
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Reasonable accommodation
"Rezoning" concerns changing land-use classification rather than a housing policy. "Reasonable accommodation" is a requested disability-related exception to a rule. "Eminent domain" concerns government acquisition of property. "Partition" concerns division of co-owned property. Change the facts: A request for a physical grab-bar installation instead concerns a reasonable modification, with payment duties depending on applicable law and program.
What to remember: An assistance-animal request is a possible exception to a policy, not a request to remodel a unit.
Check the rule: HUD, Housing Discrimination Under the Fair Housing Act.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 43 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-69
A home is sold as is, and the signed contract still gives the buyer a timely inspection termination right. What does as is establish by itself?
- A. It does not erase that express inspection right
- B. It cancels every buyer contingency
- C. It guarantees the home has no defects
- D. It makes fraud lawful
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. It does not erase that express inspection right
"It does not erase that express inspection right" preserves the inspection right expressly retained in the agreement. "It cancels every buyer contingency" disregards the rest of the signed contract. "It guarantees the home has no defects" turns an allocation of condition risk into a condition guarantee. "It makes fraud lawful" does not follow; as-is wording does not authorize fraud. Change the facts: If no contractual inspection right was retained, that right cannot be assumed from this example; other applicable law still matters.
What to remember: Read as-is language together with the rest of the contract.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 44 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-56
A principal privately tells an agent not to accept offers. The principal then tells a buyer in the agent's presence that the agent has full authority to accept. Which doctrine is most relevant to the buyer's reasonable belief?
- A. Apparent authority
- B. Subagency
- C. Universal agency
- D. Customer status
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Apparent authority
"Apparent authority" focuses on the principal's manifestation to the third party. "Subagency" does not describe the stated principal-to-buyer representation. "Universal agency" is not established by one representation about acceptance authority. "Customer status" describes the consumer relationship rather than this authority issue. Change the facts: The agent's unsupported claim alone, without a relevant principal manifestation, does not establish apparent authority on that basis.
What to remember: Apparent authority depends on the principal’s manifestations, not just an agent’s claim of power.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 45 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-64
In a jurisdiction permitting consensual dual agency, a broker proposes to represent both sides of one transaction. What must be addressed?
- A. Whether both clients use the same lender
- B. Only which party pays the fee
- C. Only the order in which offers arrived
- D. Informed consent and the limits of representing competing interests
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Informed consent and the limits of representing competing interests
"Whether both clients use the same lender" does not resolve divided loyalty. "Only which party pays the fee" does not determine whether dual representation is permitted. "Only the order in which offers arrived" does not supply informed consent or define its limits. "Informed consent and the limits of representing competing interests" addresses both permission and the competing interests. Change the facts: In a jurisdiction prohibiting the proposed dual representation, consent alone cannot authorize it.
What to remember: Consent does not erase the practical limits of representing parties with opposing interests.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 46 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-38
A purchase agreement in interstate commerce uses electronic signatures. Which statement reflects the federal E-SIGN Act?
- A. Electronic signatures remove the need for consent
- B. Electronic form alone is not a reason to deny legal effect
- C. Every electronic message forms a contract
- D. Electronic signatures make an illegal contract enforceable
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Electronic form alone is not a reason to deny legal effect
"Electronic signatures remove the need for consent" does not follow from the use of electronic form. "Electronic form alone is not a reason to deny legal effect" matches the limited federal rule against denying effect solely for electronic form. "Every electronic message forms a contract" ignores assent and other formation requirements. "Electronic signatures make an illegal contract enforceable" does not follow; electronic form does not legalize an unlawful bargain. Change the facts: A signature made without authority still raises an authority problem even if the electronic format is acceptable.
What to remember: Electronic form does not cure missing consent, lack of authority, or unlawful terms.
Check the rule: Office of the Law Revision Counsel, 15 USC 7001(a)-(b).
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 47 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-42
After acceptance, both parties change the closing date. What document is most appropriate?
- A. Listing extension only
- B. New advertisement
- C. Deed restriction
- D. Amendment
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Amendment
"Listing extension only" does not amend the buyer-seller closing date. "New advertisement" does not supply the parties' agreed contract change. "Deed restriction" is a different instrument and function. "Amendment" records a change to the existing agreement. Change the facts: If the document accompanies the original offer as it is formed, an addendum rather than a later amendment is the usual label.
What to remember: An amendment changes an existing agreement. An addendum may supplement it when formed.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 48 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-86
What does a qualifying housing-for-older-persons exemption address?
- A. Familial status
- B. All protected classes
- C. Race only
- D. Disability only
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Familial status
"Familial status" is the protection addressed by a qualifying older-persons exemption. "All protected classes" overstates the exemption's scope. "Race only" is not the exemption granted to qualifying older-persons housing. "Disability only" is not the protected class removed by that exemption. Change the facts: A development that fails the older-persons requirements cannot claim that exemption merely by calling itself senior housing.
What to remember: A qualifying older-persons exemption concerns familial status, not permission for racial or religious discrimination.
Check the rule: HUD, Housing Discrimination Under the Fair Housing Act.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 49 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-100
The seller prepaid a $720 annual service plan that transfers with the property. Six months remain for the buyer. Which entry is correct?
- A. Seller debit and buyer credit for $360
- B. Buyer debit and seller credit for $360
- C. Buyer debit and seller credit for $720
- D. No entry because prepaid items cannot be prorated
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Buyer debit and seller credit for $360
"Seller debit and buyer credit for $360" reverses the reimbursement direction. "Buyer debit and seller credit for $360" charges the buyer and reimburses the seller for the $360 unused benefit. "Buyer debit and seller credit for $720" uses the whole annual cost instead of the unused half. "No entry because prepaid items cannot be prorated" incorrectly rules out prorating an agreed transferable prepaid benefit. Change the facts: If only three months remain for the buyer, the reimbursement is $180 with the same direction.
What to remember: Reimbursing a prepaid seller expense gives the seller a credit and the buyer a debit.
Check the rule: CFPB, Closing Disclosure explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 50 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-94
Monthly principal and interest are $1,940. Annual taxes are $6,600 and annual homeowners insurance is $1,440. What is monthly PITI?
- A. $2,060
- B. $2,490
- C. $2,730
- D. $2,610
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. $2,610
"$2,060" adds only monthly insurance and omits tax. "$2,490" adds only monthly tax and omits insurance. "$2,730" adds an extra $120 beyond the supplied monthly components. "$2,610" is $1,940 + ($6,600 / 12) + ($1,440 / 12) = $2,610. Change the facts: If annual tax is $5,160, monthly tax is $430 and PITI becomes $2,490 with other inputs unchanged.
What to remember: PITI adds principal, interest, taxes, and insurance. Use monthly figures throughout.
Check the rule: CFPB, Loan Estimate explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 51 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-87
A licensed real estate agent receives substantially all service pay based on sales or other output and works under a written contract specifying nonemployee treatment for federal tax. What is the IRS classification for those purposes?
- A. Self-employed statutory nonemployee
- B. Employee solely because the agent holds a license
- C. Employee solely because commissions are paid
- D. Classification cannot be determined without an hourly time sheet
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Self-employed statutory nonemployee
"Self-employed statutory nonemployee" fits all three stated federal-tax conditions. "Employee solely because the agent holds a license" mistakes licensing alone for employee status. "Employee solely because commissions are paid" mistakes output-based pay for a reason to impose employee status despite the supplied conditions. "Classification cannot be determined without an hourly time sheet" ignores the statutory criteria already given. Change the facts: If the required written nonemployee contract is absent, these facts no longer establish the statutory category; a separate classification analysis is needed.
What to remember: The federal tax test does not settle classification under wage, benefit, or state law.
Check the rule: IRS, Statutory nonemployees.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 52 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-55
A broker is authorized to negotiate one warehouse purchase for a client, but has no authority to sign the purchase agreement. What kind of agency best fits?
- A. Special agency
- B. Universal agency
- C. General power of attorney
- D. Property ownership in severalty
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Special agency
"Special agency" fits authority confined to the identified transaction. "Universal agency" would describe authority far broader than these facts. "General power of attorney" is not supplied by a limited negotiation appointment. "Property ownership in severalty" is ownership, not this representation relationship. Change the facts: An additional valid power to sign would change the signing-authority analysis, but would not make all authority unlimited.
What to remember: A special agent’s authority is limited. A license does not create a power of attorney.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 53 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-19
A nearby industrial nuisance reduces residential value. What category is it?
- A. Reproduction cost
- B. Curable physical wear
- C. External obsolescence
- D. Entrepreneurial profit
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. External obsolescence
"Reproduction cost" is a cost measure rather than this loss category. "Curable physical wear" does not describe an influence outside the residence. "External obsolescence" fits a value influence originating outside the property. "Entrepreneurial profit" is not the nuisance-caused loss category. Change the facts: If the problem is an outdated floor plan inside the home, functional obsolescence is the closer category.
What to remember: An outside nuisance differs from wear and tear or an outdated interior layout.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 54 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-90
How recent must the National Registry version be under the FTC safe-harbor framework?
- A. Five years old
- B. One year old
- C. No more than 31 days old
- D. Only downloaded once
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. No more than 31 days old
"Five years old" is far older than the stated maximum registry age. "One year old" is also older than that maximum. "No more than 31 days old" is the FTC national-registry age used in the stated process. Meeting this age condition alone does not establish the entire safe harbor. "Only downloaded once" does not maintain a current checking process. Change the facts: A consumer's direct seller-specific stop request still matters even when the national-registry version is current.
What to remember: Thirty-one days is a maximum registry age, not permission to ignore a direct stop request.
Check the rule: FTC, Complying with the Telemarketing Sales Rule: Do Not Call.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 55 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-41
What most clearly distinguishes a novation from a delegation?
- A. A novation releases the replaced party by agreement
- B. A novation is always oral
- C. A delegation transfers title
- D. A delegation ends every contract
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A novation releases the replaced party by agreement
"A novation releases the replaced party by agreement" adds agreed substitution and release, beyond delegation alone. "A novation is always oral" is not a universal form requirement for novation. "A delegation transfers title" confuses performance duties with ownership conveyance. "A delegation ends every contract" does not follow; delegation does not automatically terminate the contract. Change the facts: Without release of the original obligor, a transfer of performance does not by itself establish novation.
What to remember: Look for an agreed substitution and release when distinguishing novation from assignment.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 56 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-99
Annual property taxes are $5,840. Closing is March 2 in a non-leap year, the buyer owns closing day, and taxes are accrued. Using a 365-day year, what credit does the buyer receive for the seller's period?
- A. $944
- B. $1,440
- C. $976
- D. $960
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. $960
"$944" uses only 59 seller days. "$1,440" uses 90 days rather than the stated calendar period. "$976" uses 61 days and includes closing day in the seller period. "$960" uses 60 seller days at $16 per day: $5,840 / 365 x 60 = $960. Change the facts: If the seller instead owns March 2 under the supplied convention, 61 days produce $976.
What to remember: Use the stated non-leap-year convention and identify who owns closing day before counting.
Check the rule: CFPB, Closing Disclosure explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 57 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-21
An apartment budget shows income at full occupancy and full collection, before any vacancy or collection deduction. Which income measure is shown?
- A. Net operating income
- B. Potential gross income
- C. Before-tax cash flow after financing
- D. Debt service
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Potential gross income
"Net operating income" is after operating deductions, rather than full-income potential. "Potential gross income" is income at full occupancy and collection before the stated losses. "Before-tax cash flow after financing" is a later cash-flow measure after financing. "Debt service" is a financing payment rather than gross property income. Change the facts: After vacancy, collection loss and other income are accounted for, the resulting measure is effective gross income.
What to remember: Potential gross income comes before vacancy and collection-loss deductions.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 58 of 100 · Transfer of Title · ID national-a-76
A buyer wants the broadest conventional grantor warranty across the title chain, subject to the deed's exceptions. Which deed label usually matches that request?
- A. Tax deed
- B. Quitclaim deed
- C. General warranty deed
- D. Sheriff's deed
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. General warranty deed
"Tax deed" does not conventionally provide the requested broad grantor covenants. "Quitclaim deed" conveys the existing interest without those title covenants. "General warranty deed" conventionally offers the requested broad warranty scope, subject to the deed and law. "Sheriff's deed" does not conventionally provide that general grantor warranty merely because of its label. Change the facts: A special warranty limited to claims by, through or under its grantor has a narrower scope; actual title quality remains separate.
What to remember: Warranty scope is a promise by the grantor, not a government certification of perfect title.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, warranty deed.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IX
National 59 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-16
A comparable sold for $320,000. It lacks a garage that the subject has, and market evidence supports a $15,000 difference. Ignoring other adjustments, what is the adjusted comparable price?
- A. $305,000
- B. $335,000
- C. $320,000, with $15,000 added to the subject
- D. $335,000 only if the garage cost exactly $15,000 to build
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. $335,000
"$305,000" subtracts the garage contribution although the comparable is inferior. "$335,000" adds the supported $15,000 contribution: $320,000 + $15,000 = $335,000. "$320,000, with $15,000 added to the subject" adjusts the subject instead of the comparable. "$335,000 only if the garage cost exactly $15,000 to build" incorrectly makes market contribution depend on matching construction cost. Change the facts: If the comparable had the garage and the subject lacked it, subtract $15,000 to reach $305,000.
What to remember: Adjust the comparable toward the subject. An inferior comparable needs an upward adjustment.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 60 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-33
What is HMDA's central function?
- A. Guaranteeing every mortgage
- B. Licensing real estate brokers
- C. Requiring many covered institutions to collect, report, and disclose mortgage-lending data
- D. Setting local property taxes
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Requiring many covered institutions to collect, report, and disclose mortgage-lending data
"Guaranteeing every mortgage" is not HMDA's purpose. "Licensing real estate brokers" concerns a different licensing system. "Requiring many covered institutions to collect, report, and disclose mortgage-lending data" states HMDA's covered mortgage-data function. "Setting local property taxes" is a local tax function rather than mortgage data reporting. Change the facts: A particular lender may be exempt or a transaction excluded; the general purpose does not establish every lender's reporting duty.
What to remember: HMDA data helps reveal lending patterns; the law is not a mortgage insurance program.
Check the rule: CFPB, Regulation C § 1003.1: purposes of HMDA.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 61 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-39
A signed purchase contract is awaiting financing and closing. What is its performance status?
- A. Executed
- B. Void
- C. Executory
- D. Rescinded
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Executory
"Executed" would require the material performance to be completed. "Void" does not follow merely from pending financing. "Executory" describes the remaining financing and closing duties. "Rescinded" would mean the agreement was undone, which the facts do not say. Change the facts: Once all required material performance is completed, the performance classification can become executed.
What to remember: A signed agreement may still be executory because performance remains due.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 62 of 100 · Transfer of Title · ID national-a-77
What does a quitclaim deed ordinarily convey?
- A. Guaranteed fee-simple title
- B. Only future-acquired title
- C. The grantor's then-existing interest, if any
- D. A lender's insured interest
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The grantor's then-existing interest, if any
"Guaranteed fee-simple title" adds a title guarantee a quitclaim does not supply. "Only future-acquired title" does not describe the ordinary present-interest conveyance. "The grantor's then-existing interest, if any" passes the grantor's existing interest, if any, without title covenants. "A lender's insured interest" does not follow merely from receiving a quitclaim. Change the facts: If the grantor owns good title, a quitclaim can convey that interest; its lack of covenants does not prove defective title.
What to remember: A quitclaim can convey good title if the grantor has it; it simply makes no title covenants.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, quitclaim deed.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IX
National 63 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-31
Which law is most directly associated with prohibited-basis discrimination in any aspect of a credit transaction?
- A. Recording Act
- B. RESPA Section 8
- C. ECOA
- D. Statute of Frauds
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. ECOA
"Recording Act" concerns public records rather than the credit-discrimination prohibition. "RESPA Section 8" concerns covered referral fees rather than prohibited-basis credit discrimination. "ECOA" is implemented by Regulation B and addresses discrimination in credit transactions. "Statute of Frauds" concerns required writings rather than credit discrimination. Change the facts: A thing of value for covered settlement referrals instead points to RESPA's Section 8 analysis.
What to remember: Credit discrimination rules and mortgage settlement-fee rules address different conduct.
Check the rule: CFPB, Regulation B § 1002.4: credit discrimination.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 64 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-93
A buyer wants a professional assessment of the home’s systems. Which task belongs with a qualified home inspector rather than a broker acting only as a real estate agent?
- A. Performing the compensated inspection and issuing the report
- B. Sharing a seller disclosure
- C. Scheduling access
- D. Calendaring the inspection deadline
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Performing the compensated inspection and issuing the report
"Performing the compensated inspection and issuing the report" is the professional inspection task that requires the relevant competence. "Sharing a seller disclosure" shares a document without performing the inspection. "Scheduling access" arranges logistics rather than issuing an inspection opinion. "Calendaring the inspection deadline" tracks the contractual timeline rather than evaluating systems. Change the facts: A broker with separate appropriate inspection qualifications would need analysis of that distinct role and engagement; a brokerage license alone does not establish it.
What to remember: A real estate license is not proof of inspection or engineering expertise.
Check the rule: CFPB, Schedule a home inspection.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 65 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-35
Buyer and seller exchange enforceable promises to pay and convey. Their agreement does not require a deposit for formation. The buyer has not yet delivered earnest money. Which statement about consideration is best?
- A. Only a deposited earnest-money check can be consideration
- B. The exchanged promises can supply consideration
- C. The broker's advertising bill is the parties' exchange
- D. The later deed must already be recorded
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The exchanged promises can supply consideration
"Only a deposited earnest-money check can be consideration" mistakes a possible deposit term for the only form of consideration. "The exchanged promises can supply consideration" can supply consideration through the bargained exchange of promises. "The broker's advertising bill is the parties' exchange" does not describe the buyer-seller exchange. "The later deed must already be recorded" is later performance rather than a prerequisite for consideration here. Change the facts: An express deposit condition for contract formation would need separate satisfaction; it is excluded from the original facts.
What to remember: Consideration may be a return promise. It need not be a cash deposit.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 66 of 100 · Transfer of Title · ID national-a-78
A grantor signs a deed but keeps an unrestricted right to recall it. Which element is most doubtful?
- A. Delivery
- B. Legal description
- C. Grantee identity
- D. Recording fee
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Delivery
"Delivery" is doubtful because the grantor retained unrestricted control rather than present irrevocable transfer intent. "Legal description" is not identified as defective by the facts. "Grantee identity" is not the stated uncertainty. "Recording fee" does not settle the delivery issue. Change the facts: A valid irrevocable delivery with present transfer intent and acceptance would remove this specific retained-control objection.
What to remember: A deed’s intended delivery and acceptance matter; signing alone is not the whole transfer analysis.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IX
National 67 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-49
An owner grants a supported option to purchase for a stated period. The optionee has not exercised it. Who is bound to keep the underlying offer available under the option terms?
- A. The owner as optionor
- B. The optionee as an already bound purchaser
- C. The escrow holder as property owner
- D. The appraiser as seller
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The owner as optionor
"The owner as optionor" grants the supported purchase election and must honor the option terms. "The optionee as an already bound purchaser" does not become bound to purchase merely by holding an unexercised option. "The escrow holder as property owner" does not own the parcel merely by holding funds. "The appraiser as seller" does not become the seller by valuing it. Change the facts: After a valid exercise, the resulting purchase obligations must be analyzed under the option and applicable law.
What to remember: The optionor gives the right; the optionee receives the choice to exercise it.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 68 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-08
Two co-owners hold undivided interests. No agreement gives either exclusive rooms. One claims sole possession of the upstairs because that owner paid more. Which feature of undivided ownership defeats that claim?
- A. An automatic priority based on contribution
- B. An automatic physical partition
- C. A shared right to possess the whole property
- D. A probate award during both owners' lives
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. A shared right to possess the whole property
"An automatic priority based on contribution" does not follow merely from paying a greater contribution. "An automatic physical partition" has not occurred in these facts. "A shared right to possess the whole property" belongs to the undivided ownership model, subject to any valid agreement. "A probate award during both owners' lives" has no role in assigning upstairs rooms during both owners' lives. Change the facts: A valid exclusive-possession agreement would change the stated assumption; unequal fractions alone would not physically divide the building.
What to remember: An undivided share is an ownership fraction, not an assigned room or corner of land.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 69 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-67
A purchase contract includes an inspection contingency. The inspection finds an expensive roof problem. Which document determines the buyer’s contractual options?
- A. The listing photograph alone
- B. The signed purchase agreement and its contingency terms
- C. The lender’s rate lock
- D. The broker’s commission schedule
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The signed purchase agreement and its contingency terms
"The listing photograph alone" does not set the buyer's contingency remedies. "The signed purchase agreement and its contingency terms" states the agreed rights, notice requirements and deadlines, subject to law. "The lender’s rate lock" does not determine the inspection election. "The broker’s commission schedule" does not create the buyer's remedy. Change the facts: Without an inspection contingency, the buyer cannot assume this particular contractual termination right exists merely because a report is unfavorable.
What to remember: The inspection report describes findings; the contract supplies the agreed remedies and deadlines.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 70 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-57
For the usual national general-versus-special agency classification, a manager has a continuing appointment to collect rent and arrange routine repairs within written limits. Which category describes that ongoing scope?
- A. Special agent for one isolated act
- B. Subagent solely because rent is collected
- C. Customer
- D. General agent for a continuing range of matters
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. General agent for a continuing range of matters
"Special agent for one isolated act" does not describe continuity across recurring management matters. "Subagent solely because rent is collected" does not follow simply because rent is collected. "Customer" does not describe an appointed representative. "General agent for a continuing range of matters" fits the usual continuing-service general-agency model within the written limits. Change the facts: If authority is limited to one isolated purchase negotiation, special agency is the closer scope classification.
What to remember: Continuing authority over a business activity points toward general agency.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 71 of 100 · Property Management · ID national-a-74
A property manager prepares a budget for next year. Which item belongs under operating expenses?
- A. Sale proceeds from the property
- B. The owner’s personal income tax
- C. A mortgage principal payment
- D. Routine maintenance
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Routine maintenance
"Sale proceeds from the property" is a disposition inflow rather than an operating expense. "The owner’s personal income tax" is the owner's tax rather than property operations. "A mortgage principal payment" is financing principal, below property NOI. "Routine maintenance" is an expense of running and maintaining the property. Change the facts: Property tax, unlike the owner's personal income tax, belongs among property operating expenses in this model.
What to remember: Separate property operations from the owner’s financing and personal taxes.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VIII
National 72 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-32
Which event requires a new three-business-day waiting period after a corrected Closing Disclosure?
- A. A newly added prepayment penalty
- B. A corrected seller mailing address only
- C. A minor spelling correction
- D. A final walkthrough note
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A newly added prepayment penalty
"A newly added prepayment penalty" is one of the changes requiring the new corrected-disclosure waiting period. "A corrected seller mailing address only" alone is not one of the three specified triggers. "A minor spelling correction" alone is not one of those triggers. "A final walkthrough note" does not itself establish a triggering APR, product or prepayment-penalty change. Change the facts: If the only correction is the seller's mailing address, a new three-business-day waiting period is not triggered by that correction alone.
What to remember: Adding a prepayment penalty triggers a new waiting period. Not every corrected figure does.
Check the rule: CFPB, Regulation Z § 1026.19(e) and (f): mortgage disclosures.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 73 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-05
What is the best transaction practice for a seller who wants to keep a built-in fixture?
- A. Remove it after closing without notice
- B. State the exclusion and replacement terms in the written contract
- C. Rely only on verbal custom
- D. Call it personal property in advertising only
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. State the exclusion and replacement terms in the written contract
"Remove it after closing without notice" creates an undisclosed removal risk rather than an agreed exclusion. "State the exclusion and replacement terms in the written contract" documents what the buyer is and is not purchasing. "Rely only on verbal custom" leaves the intended exclusion uncertain. "Call it personal property in advertising only" does not itself amend the buyer-seller agreement. Change the facts: If the parties agree that the fixture stays, the seller cannot rely on an earlier private wish to keep it.
What to remember: A built-in item is different from ordinary movable furniture.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, fixture.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 74 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-82
A housing provider turns down an otherwise qualifying applicant because the applicant has a child. Assume the federal Act applies and no exemption fits. Which protected characteristic is implicated?
- A. Familial status
- B. Credit score
- C. Occupation
- D. Education level
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Familial status
"Familial status" addresses the qualifying household-with-child fact under the stated coverage assumption. "Credit score" is not the federal protected characteristic identified by this refusal. "Occupation" does not describe the reason for this refusal. "Education level" does not describe the stated protected status. Change the facts: A genuinely qualifying housing-for-older-persons exemption changes familial-status analysis, without waiving protection for every other class.
What to remember: Familial status includes qualifying households with children; avoid treating all adult-only preferences as lawful.
Check the rule: HUD, Housing Discrimination Under the Fair Housing Act.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 75 of 100 · Property Disclosures · ID national-a-72
A buyer asks whether a house is safe from radon because there is no unusual smell. Which answer is accurate?
- A. A neighbor’s result proves this home’s level
- B. No smell means no radon
- C. Only homes with basements can have radon
- D. Testing is needed; radon cannot be detected by smell
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Testing is needed; radon cannot be detected by smell
"A neighbor’s result proves this home’s level" does not test this property's level. "No smell means no radon" cannot establish the absence of an odorless gas. "Only homes with basements can have radon" incorrectly limits radon risk to basement homes. "Testing is needed; radon cannot be detected by smell" recognizes that smell cannot measure radon and the home needs testing. Change the facts: A valid test result for this home supplies property-specific evidence; another property's result still does not substitute.
What to remember: A clean smell or a neighbor’s low reading cannot establish this home’s radon level.
Check the rule: EPA, Home Buyer’s and Seller’s Guide to Radon, March 2024.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VII
National 76 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-40
A contract permits a buyer to transfer the right to purchase. The buyer transfers that right to another person, without a release of the original buyer's obligations. Which transaction occurred?
- A. Delegation alone
- B. Assignment
- C. Tender of the closing payment
- D. Rescission of the whole agreement
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Assignment
"Delegation alone" describes a duty transfer rather than the stated right transfer. "Assignment" transfers the permitted contractual right without proving release. "Tender of the closing payment" is an offer of performance, not this transfer. "Rescission of the whole agreement" would undo the contract rather than transfer the purchase right. Change the facts: An agreed substitution that releases the old obligation would add the features needed for novation.
What to remember: Transferring rights does not automatically release the original obligor.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 77 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-91
A consumer directly tells a brokerage to stop calling. What should happen?
- A. Keep calling for 18 months
- B. Sell the number to another team
- C. Call only after 9 p.m.
- D. Honor the internal do-not-call request
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Honor the internal do-not-call request
"Keep calling for 18 months" ignores the seller-specific stop request. "Sell the number to another team" does not honor the request or create calling permission. "Call only after 9 p.m." does not solve the stop request and adds a calling-time problem. "Honor the internal do-not-call request" records and honors the consumer's instruction for covered calls. Change the facts: An established business relationship does not by itself override the consumer's seller-specific stop request.
What to remember: An entity-specific stop request defeats reliance on an established business relationship for further covered calls.
Check the rule: FTC, Complying with the Telemarketing Sales Rule: Do Not Call.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 78 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-96
A $340,000 loan is made on a property with a required value base of $400,000. What is the LTV?
- A. 15%
- B. 85%
- C. 80%
- D. 117.65%
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 85%
"15%" is the unfinanced fraction of the supplied value base. "85%" is $340,000 / $400,000 = 85 percent. "80%" is not the ratio of the stated loan and value. "117.65%" reverses the numerator and denominator. Change the facts: A $320,000 loan on the same $400,000 required base gives 80 percent LTV.
What to remember: Divide the loan by the stated value base, then convert to a percentage.
Check the rule: CFPB, Loan Estimate explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 79 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-85
A landlord refuses to consider an applicant because of the applicant’s national origin. Assuming the Fair Housing Act applies, which statement is correct?
- A. An agent can carry out the instruction without responsibility
- B. Only citizenship, not national origin, matters under the Act
- C. The refusal is lawful if stated verbally
- D. National origin is federally protected
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. National origin is federally protected
"An agent can carry out the instruction without responsibility" does not excuse participation in unlawful discrimination. "Only citizenship, not national origin, matters under the Act" does not remove the Act's national-origin protection. "The refusal is lawful if stated verbally" does not make a prohibited refusal lawful. "National origin is federally protected" identifies the federally protected characteristic in the stated covered transaction. Change the facts: An actual lawful, consistently applied financial criterion presents a different stated reason; it cannot be a pretext for national-origin discrimination.
What to remember: National origin is protected federally; do not confuse it with the separate question of immigration status.
Check the rule: HUD, Housing Discrimination Under the Fair Housing Act.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 80 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-88
Competing brokers agree to charge the same minimum fee. What is this?
- A. Appraisal
- B. Market focus
- C. Independent pricing
- D. Price fixing
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Price fixing
"Appraisal" is valuation, not this competitor agreement. "Market focus" does not excuse coordinating a minimum fee. "Independent pricing" is contradicted by the agreement between competing firms. "Price fixing" describes coordinated prices, including an agreed minimum. Change the facts: Similar fees chosen independently, without an agreement, do not by themselves establish price fixing.
What to remember: A coordinated minimum fee is still price fixing even if firms may charge above it.
Check the rule: U.S. Department of Justice, Price Fixing, Bid Rigging, and Market Allocation.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 81 of 100 · Practice of Real Estate · ID national-a-84
A tenant asks to install a grab bar. What fair housing concept is most direct?
- A. Reasonable modification
- B. Source of income
- C. Blockbusting
- D. Redlining
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Reasonable modification
"Reasonable modification" describes the requested physical change. "Source of income" is a separate discrimination subject rather than the installation. "Blockbusting" concerns inducing transactions through protected-class change. "Redlining" concerns discriminatory geographic lending or services. Change the facts: A disability-related exception to a no-pets rule instead asks for accommodation of a policy.
What to remember: A physical change is a modification. The applicable housing program can affect who pays.
Check the rule: HUD, Housing Discrimination Under the Fair Housing Act.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline X
National 82 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-51
Which remedy asks a court to order conveyance of the contracted parcel?
- A. Rescission
- B. Specific performance
- C. Liquidated damages
- D. Mitigation
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Specific performance
"Rescission" seeks to unwind the bargain rather than compel conveyance. "Specific performance" asks the court to compel the promised act, subject to equitable requirements. "Liquidated damages" seeks the agreed monetary remedy rather than the deed. "Mitigation" concerns reducing loss rather than compelling conveyance. Change the facts: A request to undo the agreement and restore the parties instead concerns rescission.
What to remember: Specific performance asks for the promised performance rather than only a money award.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 83 of 100 · Financing · ID national-a-26
In a standard 5/1 ARM, what does the 1 generally represent?
- A. A one-dollar payment
- B. One adjustment each year after the initial period
- C. One percent lifetime cap in every loan
- D. A one-year total loan term
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. One adjustment each year after the initial period
"A one-dollar payment" does not describe the adjustment interval. "One adjustment each year after the initial period" means annual adjustment after the initial period in the stated 5/1 convention. "One percent lifetime cap in every loan" is not a universal lifetime cap. "A one-year total loan term" confuses adjustment frequency with the total loan term. Change the facts: A stated 5/6m ARM instead has a five-year initial period followed by six-month adjustment intervals.
What to remember: In a 5/1 ARM, the first number describes the initial fixed period and the second the adjustment interval.
Check the rule: CFPB, Consumer Handbook on Adjustable-Rate Mortgages.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IV
National 84 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-18
A house is sound but has an awkward layout that buyers discount. There is no external nuisance. Which loss category best matches that problem?
- A. Functional obsolescence
- B. Physical deterioration
- C. External obsolescence
- D. Depreciation of the site itself
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Functional obsolescence
"Functional obsolescence" fits the internal layout inadequacy despite a sound structure. "Physical deterioration" requires wear or physical damage, which is not the stated cause. "External obsolescence" requires an influence outside the property, excluded here. "Depreciation of the site itself" does not identify the building's layout problem. Change the facts: If the loss instead comes from a new nuisance next door, the relevant category is external obsolescence.
What to remember: A poor floor plan is a problem within the property, not an external market influence.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III
National 85 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-44
Which statement about earnest money is most accurate?
- A. It is always required for a valid purchase contract
- B. It is a deposit governed by the agreement and escrow instructions
- C. It automatically belongs to the seller after any buyer default
- D. It replaces the parties' signatures
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It is a deposit governed by the agreement and escrow instructions
"It is always required for a valid purchase contract" incorrectly treats a deposit as a universal formation requirement. "It is a deposit governed by the agreement and escrow instructions" recognizes that the deposit is subject to the agreement and lawful escrow instructions. "It automatically belongs to the seller after any buyer default" assumes entitlement and release authority without the required analysis. "It replaces the parties' signatures" does not supply the parties' assent. Change the facts: An express contractual deposit condition changes the analysis of that condition; it does not create a universal earnest-money rule.
What to remember: Earnest money supports the transaction but is not the only possible form of consideration.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 86 of 100 · Transfer of Title · ID national-a-79
A validly delivered deed is recorded. The buyer concludes that recording guarantees clear title and a sound roof. Which statement corrects that conclusion?
- A. Recording gives public notice and can affect priority
- B. Recording creates any ownership the grantor lacked
- C. Recording replaces an adequate legal description
- D. Recording certifies marketable title and physical condition
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Recording gives public notice and can affect priority
"Recording gives public notice and can affect priority" states the notice and potential priority function. "Recording creates any ownership the grantor lacked" cannot supply title the grantor did not own. "Recording replaces an adequate legal description" does not cure a missing or defective description. "Recording certifies marketable title and physical condition" does not guarantee either title quality or physical condition. Change the facts: If the deed was never validly delivered, later recording alone does not prove that the underlying transfer was valid.
What to remember: Recording gives public notice under applicable law. It does not guarantee title quality.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline IX
National 87 of 100 · Real Estate Calculations · ID national-a-95
A property is worth $475,000 and is secured by a $290,000 first mortgage and a $35,000 second mortgage. What is the owner's dollar equity?
- A. $325,000
- B. $185,000
- C. $290,000
- D. $150,000
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. $150,000
"$325,000" is total secured debt, not equity. "$185,000" subtracts only the $290,000 first mortgage. "$290,000" is the first mortgage balance rather than the residual ownership amount. "$150,000" is $475,000 - $290,000 - $35,000 = $150,000. Change the facts: If no second mortgage existed, equity would be $185,000; this still would not be net sale proceeds after costs.
What to remember: Equity is value minus debt; it is not the same as cash received after selling costs.
Check the rule: CFPB, Loan Estimate explainer.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline XI
National 88 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-06
A deed names Lakeview Corporation as the only owner of a warehouse. The company has several shareholders. How does the corporation hold the real estate?
- A. As a partitioned estate
- B. As joint tenants with its shareholders
- C. As tenants in common with its shareholders
- D. In severalty
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. In severalty
"As a partitioned estate" would require an actual division, which the deed does not supply. "As joint tenants with its shareholders" incorrectly adds shareholders as deeded co-owners. "As tenants in common with its shareholders" also incorrectly gives shareholders direct ownership of the parcel. "In severalty" fits the corporation's status as one legal owner. Change the facts: If the deed instead names two individuals as tenants in common, there are two direct co-owners.
What to remember: Severalty means one legal owner, even when that owner is an entity.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 89 of 100 · Property Management · ID national-a-75
A management agreement authorizes the manager to approve repairs up to $500. A nonemergency repair is quoted at $2,500, and no other authority applies. What should the manager do?
- A. Obtain the owner’s authorization before committing
- B. Approve it because every manager has unlimited authority
- C. Split one invoice to evade the limit
- D. Treat the contractor’s quote as owner consent
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Obtain the owner’s authorization before committing
"Obtain the owner’s authorization before committing" respects the stated authority limit for this nonemergency repair. "Approve it because every manager has unlimited authority" invents unlimited agency power. "Split one invoice to evade the limit" does not expand authority by dividing the same obligation. "Treat the contractor’s quote as owner consent" confuses a contractor's offer with owner permission. Change the facts: A valid owner authorization for this repair changes the authority facts; an unstated emergency power cannot be assumed.
What to remember: The management agreement sets authority. An agent cannot expand it by splitting invoices.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VIII
National 90 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-07
Which feature most clearly distinguishes joint tenancy from tenancy in common?
- A. Survivorship
- B. Possession
- C. A written deed
- D. Real property
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Survivorship
"Survivorship" is the distinguishing joint-tenancy feature when valid and unsevered. "Possession" can be shared in either co-ownership form. "A written deed" does not by itself distinguish the two forms. "Real property" can be held under either form. Change the facts: With tenancy in common, the deceased owner's share does not pass automatically to the other cotenant by survivorship.
What to remember: Survivorship concerns what happens at death, not who may occupy the property today.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 91 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-34
A buyer signs a seller's offer but increases the requested seller credit. What has the buyer created?
- A. An acceptance
- B. A counteroffer
- C. An executed contract
- D. A unilateral option
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A counteroffer
"An acceptance" requires assent to the proposed material terms, which changed here. "A counteroffer" proposes a changed material bargain rather than mirror-image acceptance. "An executed contract" cannot follow merely from a changed, unaccepted response. "A unilateral option" is not created by changing the seller-credit term. Change the facts: Acceptance of the original offer without changing its terms removes this counteroffer issue, assuming the other formation conditions hold.
What to remember: Changing a material offer term proposes a counteroffer rather than accepting the original terms.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 92 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-53
A seller's listing broker offers compensation to a buyer's broker. The buyer and buyer's broker have a valid representation agreement. Whom does the buyer's broker represent?
- A. The seller, because the listing side funds compensation
- B. The buyer
- C. Both parties automatically
- D. Neither party
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The buyer
"The seller, because the listing side funds compensation" mistakes the funding source for the representation relationship. "The buyer" is the client identified by the valid representation agreement. "Both parties automatically" does not arise automatically from seller-side compensation. "Neither party" ignores the buyer's stated representation. Change the facts: If the broker instead validly accepts seller subagency and does not represent the buyer, the represented principal changes.
What to remember: Who pays compensation does not, by itself, establish whom an agent represents.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 93 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-03
A commercial tenant installs equipment for its business. What classification should be considered?
- A. Trade fixture
- B. Easement
- C. Life estate
- D. Special assessment
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Trade fixture
"Trade fixture" can describe business equipment installed by a commercial tenant. Classification alone does not settle removal timing, lease restrictions or repair obligations. "Easement" is a use right, rather than the installed equipment. "Life estate" is an estate measured by a life. "Special assessment" is a charge against benefited property. Change the facts: If the item is an ordinary building fixture rather than tenant business equipment, the trade-fixture classification does not follow.
What to remember: Trade fixtures concern a tenant’s business. Check the lease, removal timing, and damage obligations.
Check the rule: Cornell Legal Information Institute, fixture.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 94 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-50
Which breach most likely excuses the other party's remaining performance?
- A. A harmless typographical error
- B. A material breach defeating the contract's essential purpose
- C. A corrected mailing label
- D. A minor delay expressly waived
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A material breach defeating the contract's essential purpose
"A harmless typographical error" does not ordinarily defeat the essential bargain. "A material breach defeating the contract's essential purpose" can justify discharge when the material-breach and other legal conditions are met. "A corrected mailing label" does not identify a material failure of performance. "A minor delay expressly waived" does not identify an unexcused material breach. Change the facts: If the delay was expressly waived and no other material failure exists, it does not supply the same basis for discharge.
What to remember: A material breach is more serious than a trivial departure from performance.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 95 of 100 · Property Ownership · ID national-a-09
A grant gives Elena the right to occupy a house for her lifetime, with title then passing to Amir. What does Amir hold now?
- A. A remainder interest
- B. A tenancy at sufferance
- C. A mortgage lien
- D. Elena’s life estate
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A remainder interest
"A remainder interest" is the third party's future interest following the life estate. "A tenancy at sufferance" concerns a holdover tenant rather than this grant. "A mortgage lien" would secure a debt, which is absent. "Elena’s life estate" belongs to Elena, not Amir. Change the facts: If the grantor retains the future interest instead of naming Amir, the retained interest is a reversion.
What to remember: Identify who has possession now and who receives it after the measuring life ends.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline I
National 96 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-60
Which fact is most likely confidential client information?
- A. A visible hole in the roof
- B. The buyer's undisclosed maximum price
- C. The recorded property tax amount
- D. The property's street address
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The buyer's undisclosed maximum price
"A visible hole in the roof" is a visible property condition rather than a private bargaining limit. "The buyer's undisclosed maximum price" is confidential negotiating strategy supplied by the client. "The recorded property tax amount" is public-record information rather than the stated confidence. "The property's street address" is an ordinary public identifying fact. Change the facts: If the buyer authorizes disclosure of that maximum price, the permission changes the confidentiality analysis within its scope.
What to remember: A negotiating limit is different from an objective public fact about the property.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 97 of 100 · Contracts · ID national-a-36
Which classification best fits a covered oral land-sale agreement that fails the Statute of Frauds?
- A. Executed
- B. Unenforceable
- C. Automatically illegal
- D. Unilateral
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Unenforceable
"Executed" describes completed performance rather than the writing defect. "Unenforceable" is the classification for the stipulated unmet writing requirement. "Automatically illegal" confuses an enforceability defense with an unlawful purpose. "Unilateral" describes a mode of acceptance rather than the missing writing. Change the facts: A sufficient signed writing, with the other requirements met, removes this particular statute-of-frauds defect.
What to remember: Distinguish lack of an enforceable writing from an agreement with an illegal purpose.
Check the rule: California DRE, Transfer of Interests: general contract principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline V
National 98 of 100 · Land Use Controls · ID national-a-15
A parcel satisfies zoning but violates an enforceable recorded covenant. Which statement is accurate?
- A. Zoning automatically cancels the covenant
- B. The owner must address both independent controls
- C. The covenant automatically rezones the parcel
- D. The building permit transfers title
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The owner must address both independent controls
"Zoning automatically cancels the covenant" does not follow from public permission. "The owner must address both independent controls" recognizes that public and enforceable private restrictions operate separately. "The covenant automatically rezones the parcel" confuses a private instrument with a zoning amendment. "The building permit transfers title" does not follow from issuance of a permit. Change the facts: If the private covenant has validly expired, the particular private prohibition may be gone; zoning still applies.
What to remember: Public permission does not automatically remove a valid private restriction.
Check the rule: California DRE, Title to Real Property: general ownership principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline II
National 99 of 100 · Agency · ID national-a-63
Which statement best distinguishes agency disclosure from conflict disclosure?
- A. They are always identical
- B. Agency disclosure states price; conflict disclosure transfers title
- C. Agency disclosure identifies representation; conflict disclosure identifies a competing interest
- D. Neither applies to licensees
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Agency disclosure identifies representation; conflict disclosure identifies a competing interest
"They are always identical" ignores that the disclosures answer different questions. "Agency disclosure states price; conflict disclosure transfers title" does not describe either disclosure correctly. "Agency disclosure identifies representation; conflict disclosure identifies a competing interest" separates representation identity from a competing-interest disclosure. "Neither applies to licensees" is not a general exemption for licensees. Change the facts: If the relationship changes, an earlier representation disclosure may need updating; it does not replace any separate conflict disclosure.
What to remember: Disclosure of a conflict and creation of an agency relationship are separate issues.
Check the rule: California DRE, Agency: general agency principles.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline VI
National 100 of 100 · Valuation · ID national-a-23
NOI is $90,000 and the cap rate is 6%. What is value?
- A. $5,400
- B. $540,000
- C. $1,500,000
- D. $15,000,000
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. $1,500,000
"$5,400" multiplies $90,000 by 0.06 rather than dividing. "$540,000" would produce only $32,400 NOI at 6 percent. "$1,500,000" is $90,000 divided by 0.06 = $1,500,000. "$15,000,000" results from using 0.006, which is 0.6 percent rather than 6 percent. Change the facts: At a 7.5 percent cap rate with NOI unchanged, indicated value is $1,200,000.
What to remember: Convert 6% to 0.06 before dividing. Multiplying NOI by the rate reverses the valuation formula.
Check the rule: California DRE, Appraisal and Valuation: valuation methods.
Study this topicPSI national broker outline III